In this article
After this article, you can
- Add planned holding charges to the price loss at the stop.
- Check whether minimum volume fits the budget over the chosen holding period.
Terms at hand: Position size (lot quantity) · swap (overnight charge) · Stop loss · Balance · Central banks · Drawdown
In a hypothetical review, a trader records a 58% win rate and similar average gains and losses in R, yet uses sharply different volumes. Those unweighted R statistics do not determine the cash result without trade sizes, costs and the sequence of outcomes. Compare both the planned risk and realized account-currency result before identifying the cause of a loss.
A chosen one-percent fraction — the math of a losing streak
Here, 1% is a chosen initial planned-loss budget based on current equity, not a universal industry optimum or a guaranteed maximum cash loss. The math of drawdown explains the asymmetric recovery: a 20% loss needs 25% growth of the remainder, and a 50% loss needs 100%. Another fraction changes these model outcomes.
Under independent outcomes with loss probability 50%, a specified block of ten trades is all losses with probability 0.510 = 0.09765625%. The probability of at least one run of ten losses within 200 trades is about 8.99%, accounting for overlapping runs; it is not one in nine. In an ideal fixed-fractional model, ten exact 1% losses leave EUR 10,000 × 0.9910 ≈ EUR 9,043.82, a 9.56% decline. Dependence, gaps, costs and changing conditions can alter real outcomes.
Under the same ideal fixed-fraction assumptions, ten 2% losses leave EUR 8,170.73, a decline of 18.29%, requiring 22.39% growth to recover. Ten 5% losses leave EUR 5,987.37, a decline of 40.13%, requiring 67.02% growth. Four 5% losses give an 18.55% decline. These are compounded arithmetic examples; they do not demonstrate that most traders react in a particular way or that a fraction guarantees survival.
Fits today, not for the whole plan
Holding cost has a timeline. If the budget includes price loss and fees, the stop-price loss alone does not describe the whole plan.
Fictional USD 500 account, 1% = USD 5 budget including price loss and fees. Minimum and step 0.01 lot, pip value USD 10 per lot, SL 30 pips, volume 0.01 lot. Invented USD 0.50 one-off fee and USD 0.50 per charged night with no weekday multipliers. Assume an exact stop fill with no other costs, currency moves or positions; rates describe no provider offer. The documentation MQL5: Symbol Properties lists directional swap rates and weekday charging multipliers as separate instrument parameters.
After three nights, 3 + 0.50 + 3 × 0.50 = USD 5 still fits the model budget. After four, it is USD 5.50 despite unchanged stop and volume. Include the instrument’s charging schedule and holding duration in the plan. An estimated duration guarantees neither final cost nor an ordinary stop fill at the requested price.
The position-sizing formula — a EUR/USD example, step by step
The simple formula is lots = (current equity × chosen risk fraction) ÷ (stop distance in pips × account-currency pip value per full lot), with positive distance and pip value. It estimates price loss at the assumed stop fill. Check costs, conversion, minimum and step separately. Contract units are explained in lot units in retail trading.
For a hypothetical EUR 10,000 account, 1% is EUR 100. A standard EUR/USD contract gives USD 10 per pip. At 1.0800 USD per EUR, this is about EUR 9.2593 per pip, so a 50-pip modeled loss per lot is EUR 462.963. The exact unrounded volume is 0.216 lot; at a 0.01-lot step, 0.21 lot models about EUR 97.22 price loss and 0.22 about EUR 101.85, before costs. Do not round currency conversion into a claim of exact budget compliance or maximum loss.
Keep the EUR 100 budget and fixed reference conversion 1.0800 USD per EUR. A 100-pip stop gives raw 0.108 lot, or 0.10 at step 0.01, for about EUR 92.59 of model price loss. A 25-pip stop gives raw 0.432, or 0.43, for about EUR 99.54. The rounded loss need not equal 1% exactly; actual exit conversion and execution can differ from the reference estimate.
When the allowed volume does not fit the budget
Use two hypothetical USD examples with pip value USD 10 per lot, minimum and step 0.01, exact stop fills and no extra costs. On USD 500, a chosen 1% budget is USD 5. At 30 pips, raw volume 5/(30 × 10) = 0.016666… rounds down to 0.01, giving USD 3 of price loss; 0.02 gives USD 6 and exceeds the budget. On USD 1,000, a chosen 0.5% also gives USD 5. At 80 pips, raw 0.00625 lies below the minimum: 0.01 would give USD 8. Zero permitted volume means no position fits those inputs, not a free trade or an instruction to round up.
Before each new sizing decision, update the explicitly chosen capital base and instrument inputs. A weekly reconciliation can be useful, but it does not replace recalculating current equity if the rule uses current equity. Record the sizing calculation and why any planned change was made; stop distance, pip value, currency conversion and costs can change even after a losing trade.
The 1 percent rule in context — when to drop, when to go higher
A per-position fraction and an account-wide limit are separate choices. In a hypothetical USD 500 plan, allow USD 5 of price loss per position and USD 10 per day. Define the daily accounting as realised losses plus initial planned losses of still-open positions, without netting gains. Realised USD 4 and two open budgets of USD 3 already total USD 10. A new USD 3 position fits the individual USD 5 ceiling but raises the daily total to USD 13. This is one explicitly defined bookkeeping rule, not a market-loss guarantee or a rule for every account.
In a fixed binary payoff model, doubling the risk fraction doubles a one-trade return's mean and standard deviation, while variance is multiplied by four. Compounded drawdown over n equal losses is 1 - (1-r)^n; it does not double exactly when r doubles. For ten losses, 1% gives 9.56% drawdown and 2% gives 18.29%, less than twice as much.
What to do tomorrow — putting the 1 percent rule into practice
- Record current equity, the chosen risk fraction, stop distance, contract and account-currency pip value. A sizing sheet must include the latter input rather than silently fixing it for every instrument. Check costs, the permitted minimum, volume step and required margin before selecting a size.
- Update the capital base before each sizing decision if the rule uses current equity. A weekly reconciliation can check records, but one Friday balance does not remain current through subsequent account changes.
- Write a rule against increasing the planned risk budget to recover a loss. Calculate volume again from current equity and the chosen stop distance; a tighter stop can require larger volume even when the monetary risk budget has fallen.
- Log planned and realised money loss separately, with the relevant equity base, costs, conversion and fill. A deviation does not uniquely identify spread or rounding; investigate its actual components. No universal 0.2-percentage-point threshold proves the cause.
- Use the expectancy of your strategy in R-multiples as a sample estimate with declared net outcomes and trade sizes. It does not, by itself or after a fixed 100 trades, validate a risk fraction or establish future profitability.
Related reading: the Kelly criterion, the anti-martingale system, and the risk management section in our library.
A fixed fee does not shrink with account capital
About 2 min calculator practice
The cost-inclusive worked example uses USD 10,000 capital, a 1% budget, 30-pip stop, USD 10 pip value per lot, 1-pip slippage, USD 7 commission per lot and a USD 2 fixed fee. Minimum and step are 0.01 lot. The result is 0.30 lot with USD 97.10 modeled loss. Change only capital to USD 8,000.
Resize after a capital decline
Check the result and explanation
The budget falls to USD 80. Volume is (80 − 2) ÷ 317, rounded down to 0.24 lot. Modeled loss is 0.24 × 317 + 2 = USD 78.08, leaving USD 1.92. A volume of 0.25 would produce USD 81.25. The fixed fee is not reduced by 20%.
1% is an exercise parameter. It guarantees neither maximum loss nor order acceptance; margin and worse execution need separate checks.
Check your understanding
One short exercise
About 2 min · you can try again
Price loss is USD 3, the one-off fee USD 0.50 and each charged night USD 0.50. When does the sum first exceed USD 5?
- After 3 nights.
- Never, if the stop remains unchanged.
- After 4 nights.
Check the answer and explanation
After 4 nights.
After four, 3 + 0.50 + 2.00 = USD 5.50. This is the first illustrated time above USD 5.
Frequently asked
Why 1 percent and not 2 or 3?
It is a chosen fraction, not a mathematically unique safety threshold. Under independent losses with probability 50%, a specified ten-trade block is all losses with probability 0.5¹⁰ = 0.09765625%; at least one ten-loss run in 200 trades has probability about 8.99%, accounting for overlapping runs. Ten exact losses at fractions 1%, 2% and 5% give drawdowns 9.56%, 18.29% and 40.13%. Twenty 1% losses give 18.21%, whereas four 5% losses give 18.55%. These are hypothetical calculations, not measured trader reactions or universal acceptable risk levels.
Do I calculate 1 percent from current equity or from the starting balance?
For the current-equity rule defined here, update current equity before each sizing decision. EUR 10,000, EUR 12,000 and EUR 8,000 give 1% budgets of EUR 100, EUR 120 and EUR 80. Equity and balance need not be equal while positions are open. Volume also depends on the selected stop distance, conversion, costs and allowed increments; it need not increase after every win or decrease after every loss. A weekly balance check cannot substitute for the current inputs.
When do I drop to 0.5% and when do I move up to 2%?
There is no universal switch at 100 or 200 trades, a 10% drawdown or three years of experience. Define a fraction and any adjustment rule for the plan, then inspect exposure, costs, execution and input uncertainty. Changing 1% to 0.5% halves that initial budget at unchanged equity; it does not guarantee tolerable drawdown or recovery. Positive estimated expectancy does not make 2% safe or optimal.
Does the 1 percent rule also apply to correlated positions?
Assess aggregate exposure separately. Long EUR/USD, GBP/USD and AUD/USD each contain short USD exposure, alongside different base currencies. They need not hit stops together, and a correlation above 0.7 does not convert them into one fixed payoff. In a hypothetical account with three USD 100 loss budgets, exact full-stop losses total USD 300 before costs; actual outcomes depend on the price paths and fills. A chosen aggregate ceiling can be allocated among positions, but a weekly correlation matrix does not guarantee future co-movement or a maximum loss.
Sources & bibliography
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Van Tharp Institute Books and Home Study — Position Sizing materials · The Van Tharp website’s educational materials on position sizing and R-multiples. vantharp.com ↗
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ESMA Investor Corner — CFD and retail investor protection · ESMA's investor-information portal includes retail-risk warnings and product-intervention material. www.esma.europa.eu ↗
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Bank for International Settlements Triennial Central Bank Survey of foreign exchange and OTC derivatives markets · The 2022 survey reports global FX turnover and market structure. www.bis.org ↗
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MetaQuotes Symbol Properties — MQL5 Reference · Lists point, minimum tick size, contract, volume minimum and step, directional swaps and weekday multipliers as separate instrument parameters. www.mql5.com ↗
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MetaQuotes OrderCalcProfit — MQL5 Reference · Describes an estimated profit or loss in account currency under specified trading inputs and current conditions; it is not a guaranteed final cash result. www.mql5.com ↗
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MetaQuotes Market Watch — MetaTrader 5 Help · Documents broker-specific instrument specifications, volume limits and history export. Contract size and account settings must be checked for the selected instrument. www.metatrader5.com ↗
